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F$-equivalent

If X$ and Y$ are continua, we say that Y$ is F$-equivalent to X$ provided there is a mapping in F$ from X$ onto Y$ and a mapping in F$ from Y$ onto X$.
next up previous contents index
Next: feebly monotone Up: Definitions Previous: equivalent
Janusz J. Charatonik, Pawel Krupski and Pavel Pyrih
2001-11-30